"What if the percentage of non-minority working families that own homes has gone way up or way down."
I am still unclear.
For example, the question asks: the proportion of minorities Among families that own their own home.
dosent this mean :
Minorities / Total Families that own their own home
so if in 1978 there were 1000 families that owned homes, 448 families were minorities who owned homes and obviously the other 552 were non-minorities who owned homes (correct?). 55.2% were non minorities who owned their own home.
And if in 2003 there were 10,000 families that owned homes, 4460 families were minorities that owned homes and obviously the remainder were non-minorities that owned homes. (correct?) 55.4% were non minorities who owned thier own home.
The point I am trying to make is choice D gives you no new info you didn't already know.
why is D relevant in evaluating the argument, since the above percentages for non-minority who owned their homes will always stay constant IF the number of minorities who owned their home stays constant. (% must equal 100!)
I dont understand the comment "What if the percentage of non-minority working families that own homes has gone way up or way down." I dont think it is possible as the total must equal 100% and the argument states non-minorities home owners % stayed constant.
Please let me know what i am missing..